Public Administration - 1997 (Preliminary Examination)

1.Which one of the following statements is incorrect in respect of Simon’s decisions making theory?

(a) Deciding is as Important as doing

(b) Decisions are, in the final analysis, composite

(c) Administrative man maximizes

(d) There is always a means-ends relationship

2. Which of the following statements regarding decision-making are attributable to Simon?
1. Divorce of ends from means is false.

2. Means also entail value assumptions.

3. Traditional ends-means approach is not logical.

4. Behavior alternative model is superior.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 4

3. 'Decision-making necessitates the location and control of strategic factors,' this view is expressed by:
(a) Fayol

(b) Barnard

(c) Likert

(d) Simon

4. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Though the decision making process is an important variable in the organization situation, it alone is not adequate to explain the totality of the organization picture.

Reason (R): Decision-making is a process involving emotional, expressive, rational and instrumental dimensions. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

5. The concept of satisfying behavior comes close to the economic concept of :

(a) Maximizing output

(b) Optimum output

(c) Best output.

(d) Easily achievable output

6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I List II
A. Laissez-faire -Leader - - - -1. Deserter
B. Country-Club-Leader - - - - 2. Compromise
C. Task Management Leader - - - -3. Missionary
D. Team Management Leader - - - -4. Executive
- - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - 5. Autocrat
- - - - A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 1 3 5 4

(c) 3 1 5 2

(d) 2 1 4 3

7. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I List II

A. Trait theory - - - - 1. Exchange process between leaders and followers
B. Sociometric theory - - - - 2. Personality characteristic of a leader
C. Group theory - - - - 3. Environmental factors
D. Contingency theory- - - - 4. Goals and structure of an organization
- -- - - --- - - - - - - - - - -5. Facts and values
- - - - A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 4 1 3

(c) 3 4 5 1

(d) 3 2 5 4

8. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Leadership comes from a complex relationship between the leader and the led conflicts that arise between the organization and its environment. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true

9. Which one of the following theories views leadership as a manipulative function?

(a) Human Relations Theory

(b) Scientific Management Theory

(c) Classical Theory

(d) Decision Making Theory

10. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : The function of communication is not just to get something off the mind of the transmitter.

Reason (R) : Communication must create the desired impact at the receiving end. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

11. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Classical theorists did not take cognizance of the needs of individuals.

Reason (R) : Need theorists believe that workers are motivated by their own intrinsic needs. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I List II

A. ERG theory - - - -1. A.H. Maslow

B. Acquired-Needs - - - - 2. Clayton Alderfer Theory

C. Hierarchy of Needs - - - - 3. David C. McClelland Theory

D. Equity Theory - - - - 4. J. S. Adams

- - - - A B C D

(a) 2 3 1 4

(b) 2 1 3 4

(c) 4 3 1 2

(d) 4 1 3 2

13. Consider the following statements about Civil Service in a developing society:

1. It should act as an agent of change.

2. It should have concern for social equity.

3. It should have concern for vested interests.

4. It should be politically neutral.

Which of the above are correct ?

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

14. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of the four basic steps in the Position Classification Plan ?

(a) Job analysis, Grouping of Positions, Standardization, Position allocation

(b) Standardization, Job analysis, Grouping of Positions, Position allocation

(c) Grouping of Position, Job analysis, Position allocation, Standardization

(d) Position allocation, Standardization, Job analysis, Grouping of Positions

15. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion {A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Rank classification facilitates literal entry.

Reason (R) : Rank classification facilitates transfers within the service. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

16." The most illustrious English jurists have been men who have never opened a law book till after the close of a distinguished academic career…" This statement was made in favor of (a) a test of scholastic abilities for entry into civil services (b) training civil servants for functional specialization (c) a test after training of civil servants(d) a period of probation for civil servants

17. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Recruitment has been regarded as the most important function of personnel administration.

Reason (R) : All other aspect of personnel administration are dependent upon right recruitment. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

18. Which of the following regarding training in civil service are true?

1. It should be of a continuous nature.

2. It should be for upgrading the skills.

3. It should be for updating the knowledge.

4. It should be delinked from promotion.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

19. Which of the following can be used to ensure objectivity in assessing the suitability of candidates for promotion?

1. Prescribing such criteria as qualifications and experience.

2. Laying down qualities to be assessed

3. Requiring reasons to be recorded for denial of promotion.

4. Requiring adverse reports to be given to the employee concerned.

5. Constituting multimember boards for the purpose.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5

20. According to Lopez, which of the following are the primary purposes of performance evaluation?

1. Information

2. Control

3. Review.

4. Motivation

5. Development

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2,3 and 4

(c) 1, 4 and 5

(d) 3, 4 and 5

21. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Staff councils are the best device to resolve the disputes between the government and public employee.

Reason (R) : Cordial relations between the employer and employees are indispensable for optimum productivity of an organization. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

22. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Public employees, like others, should have the right to demonstrate in order to arouse public conscience about their grievances.

Reason (R) : The government as a model employer is required to provide fair conditions of service. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

23. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : The principle of 'fair comparison' for determination of salaries in the civil service, is NOT acceptable.

Reason (R) : Public Administration has no profit motive. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not tile correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

24. Which of the following are major considerations in salary structuring for civil service?

1. Ability to pay

2. productivity

3. Adequacy

4. Rationality

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

25. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Restrictions on political activities of public employees are in their own interests.

Reason (R) : Neutrality of civil servants ensures that all of them are treated alike. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

26. Which of the following are included in the principles of anonymity of civil service?

1. Non-accountability of the civil service to the legislature

2. Civil servants becoming professional experts

3.Application of the doctrine of ministerial responsibility

4. Explaining by civil servants what their departments are doing

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1,2 and 3.

(d) 2, 3 and 4

27. Which one of the following is a common objective of the 'Rule of Lapse', 'Sunset Legislation' and 'Zero-Based Budgeting'?

(a) Economy in expenditure

(b) Legislative control

(c) Review and reauthorization of expenditures

(d) Ensuring achievement of physical targets

28. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I List II

A. The Speaker - - - -1.Fixes the time limit for discussion of Demands
B. The Finance Minister - - - -2. Examines the financial operation of the executive
C. The President - - - -3. Makes mention in the Parliament about the annual financial statement D. The C & AG - - - -4. Participates in the formulation of Five Year Plan

- - - A B C D

(a) 1 4 3 2

(b) 4 1 2 3

(c) 1 4 2 3

(d) 4 1 3 2

29. Given below are two statements, one labeled as R. Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Re-appropriation is an executive act.

Reason (R) : Re-appropriation is permissible to meet the expenditure in a new service. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

30. In the context of the budget, the term guillotine is used with reference to

(a) Appropriation bill

(b) Consolidated fund charges

(c) Voting of Demands

(d) Finance Bill

31. Which of the following form part of the budget in India?

1. Estimated income and expenditure for the following year

2. Revised figures for the preceding year

3. Revised estimates for the current year

4. Actual figures for the previous year

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

32. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : The Ministry of Finance is no longer the central agency to exercise control over finances.

Reason (R) : Administrative ministries demand greater delegation of financial powers from the Finance Ministry for speedy implementation of development programmes. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?


(a) Both A and R are true and R is the Correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

33. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I List II

A. Voting on the - - - - 1. Prior consent of the demands for grants President
B. Budget - - - -2. Not subject to vote of Parliament
C. Money Bill - - - - 3. Al instrument of socioeconomic change
D. Charged Expenditure - - - - 4. Enactment of Budget
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -5. Public Accounts Committee

- - - - A B C D

(a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 3 4 2 5

(c) 1 3 4 2

(d) 1 4 3 2

34. In the h1dian budgetary system, pending the passage of Finance Bill in the Parliament, the provisional collection under Tax Act, 1931 empowers the government to collect taxes for a period of (a) 50 days (b) 60 days (c) 75 days (d) 90 days 35. Which of the following are included in Budgetary Control by executive?

1. Allotment

2. Apportionment

3. Audit

4. Sanctions

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2,3 and 4

(b) 1,2 and 4

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 3 and 4

36. Which one of the following is NOT the occasion for criticizing the administration in the Lok Sabha?

(a) General discussion on the budget

(b) Voting on demands for grants

(c) Motion of tanks to the President

(d) Discussion on the finance Bill

37. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation?

(a) To evolve a systematic pattern of the terms of delegation

(b) To improve the methods of publicity of the rules

(c) To lay down rules and regulations on the table of the House

(d) To achieve uniformity in rule-making procedures

38. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : The Legislature exerts authority over administration through the appropriation process.

Reason (R) : The gross amount of the appropriation determines the volume of official activity and an itemized appropriation act may leave little or no administrative discretion. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explaT1ation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

39. Which of the following are tools of executive control over administration?

1. Budget

2. Civil Service Code

3. Audit by C & AG

4. Rule-making power

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

40. The most important device of supplying power to the judiciary to invalidate a Statute in India is provided by:

(a) The Directive Principles of State Policy

(b) The Fundamental Rights

(c) Articles 350 and 351

(d) Prerogative Writs 41. Under which of the following circumstances judicial intervention in administration is justified?

1. When there is abuse of discretion

2. When there is honest difference of opinion

3. When there is error of law

4. When there is lack of jurisdiction

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

42. The specific purpose of the proposed institution of Lok Pal is to

(a) strengthen legislative control over administration

(b) supplement Judicial Control over administration

(c) protect and promote insufficient administration

(d) enable effective popular control over administration

43.Which of the following are emphasized by Riggs to compare administrative systems?

1. Model building

2. Cultural Dimension

3. Ecological perspective

4. Structure-functional approach

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

44. In which one of the following countries is control over the administration through questions and motions to 'no confidence' NOT possible ?

(a) Pakistan

(b) Britain

(c) USA

(d) France

45. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Comparative Public Administration is an attempt to study administrative systems in their ecological settings.

Reason (R) : Socio-economic context has a bearing on administration. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

46. The major conceptual achievement of the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 in the USA is the vindication of the

(a) inadequate validity of the merit principle

(b) separation of managerial, political and legal aspects of personnel administration

(c) defect of bipartisan nature of the erstwhile C. S. Commission

(d) merits of the theory of checks and balances

47. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I List II

A. Northgate Trevelyan Report - - - -1. Organization of permanent civil service

B. The Pendleton Act - - - -2. Training of Police Personnel

C. Hoover Commission Report - - - -3. Civil Service Examination reform

D. Satish Chandra Committee Report - - - -4. Political activities of civil servants
- - -- - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 5. Introducting Merit System

- - - A B C D

(a) 5 4 2 3

(b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 1 5 4 3

(d) 1 5 3 2

48. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : The Soviet bureaucracy had a subordinate relationship with the Communist Party.

Reason (R) : The functions of the Soviet Government used to be controlled and directed by the Communist Party.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?


(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

49. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) What the Treasury does in U.K. is done.

(b) What the Treasury does in U.K. is shared by three agencies in U.S.A.- The Treasury, theOffice of Personnel Management and the Merit Systems protection Board.

(c) What the Treasury does in U.K. is done by the U.S. Treasury.

(d) There are Civil Service Commissions in both the U.K. and the U.S.A

50. Which of the following are distinct features of the British Civil Service as compared with the French Civil Service?

1. Dominance of generalist administrators.

2. Anonymity of central government officers.

3. Restriction on political rights of civil servants.

4. Appointment of the members of the British Administrative class as Chief Executive officers of Local Authorities.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

51. The term 'Shadow Cabinet' in Britain refers to

(a) the Cabinet that is still in the process of formation

(b) the Cabinet Committee that functions under the guidance of the Cabinet

(c) a group of opposition party members with assigned roles

(d) the team of intellectuals advising the Cabinet

52. In which one of the following countries can a citizen / get speedy justice against the wrongful acts of officials?

(a) India

(b) France

(c) USA

(d) England

53. Which of the following statements are true of Public Administration in France?

1. The Prefect is now stripped off of much of his executive power and is rechristened 'Commissioner of the Republic'.

2. The Prefect is now given more political and financial powers under a scheme of devolution of powers to communes.

3. The regional prefects' main role is to coordinate economic planning.

4. The Mayors of local communes are independent of the state officials.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

54. Which of the following factors contributed to the movement for comparative studies in public administration?

1. the attainment of independence by a large number of former colonial societies.

2. The need to extend the scope of public administration as a discipline.

3. The emphasis by the United Nations as greater interaction among its members.

4. The involvement of a large number of scholars and practitioners of administration in the post-war reconstruction programmes.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

55. Which one of the following influenced the shaping of British administration in India ?

(a) Fabianism

(b) Utilitarianism

(c) Pluralism

(d) Mercantilism

56. The Central Board of Revenue has been set up by

(a) the Constitution

(b) the order of the Finance Minister

(c) a Law of Parliament

(d) a Presidential order

57. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of Indian administration?

(a) Uniformity

(b) Decentralization

(c) Diarchy

(d) Independent Judiciary

58. The expression 'Prime Ministerial form of government' indicates a form of government in which

(a) the Prime Minister is directly elected by the people

(b) the Prime Minister heads a coalition

(c) the Prime Minister is the Head of the State

(d) the Prime Minister is no longer the first among equals but is dominant

59. Which of the following functions are performed by the Central Secretariat?

1. Issuing proclamations of Emergency.

2. Policymaking and its modification.

3. Work concerning legislation.

4. Exercising financial controls.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

60. The Staff Selection Commission is


(a) an 'attached office' under the Ministry of Personnel

(b) a 'subordinate office' of the UPSC

(c) an autonomous body under the Ministry of Personnel

(d) a statutory body under the UPSC

61. Which of the following statement regarding the Planning Commission is NOT true?

1. It is a body consisting of only specialists.

2. It has been regarded as a Super Cabinet.

3. It consists of both generalists and specialist.

4. It consists of nominees of the National Development Council.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

62. One of the functions of the Planning Commission is to

(a) accordance among the states

(b) recommend Plan Grants for public purpose

(c) supervise the implementation of deregulation

(d) recommend grants-in-aid of revenue

63. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The Planning Commission prepares the plans in consultation with Union Ministries and State Governments

(b) The various central ministries and state governments draw up their own plans according to their needs irrespective of the allocations of funds

(c) An effort is made through negotiations and discussions to arrive at an agreement among the central ministries and state governments on priorities for planned development.

(d) The Draft of the Ave Year Plan prepared by the Planning Commission is placed before the National Development Council for its approval.

64. Which of the following are NOT subject to the detailed audit of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

1. All Cooperative Societies.

2. All Public Corporations.

3. All civil expenditure.

4. All defence expenditure.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

65. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits three reports to the Parliament/State Legislatures. Which one of the following reports does NOT come under that category?

(a) Audit Report on Finance Accounts

(b) Audit Report on Appropriation Accounts

(c) Audit Report on Capital Accounts

(d) Audit Report on Commercial and Public Sector Enterprises.

66. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Proper maintenance of accounts of the public funds and their audit by an agency independent of the executive control are essential for an efficient administration of public finances.

Reason (R) : The spending authorities should produce receipts or vouchers concerning every paisa which they spend.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?


(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

67. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a government company?

(a) It has an audit board of its own

(b) It is a body corporate

(c) It is owned by the state

(d) Its employees are not civil servants.

68. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I List II

A. Organized as a major sub-division - - - - 1. Public Corporation of a department of government

B. Represents a combination of - - - 2. Control Board government ownership and business management


C. The Articles of Association are - - - - 3. Departmental Undertaking drawn up by the government and can be revised by it


D. Devised for multi-purpose project - - - -4. Government Company

- - - A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2

(b) 3 1 4 2

(c) 3 2 4 1

(d) 4 2 3 1

69. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A): There is a feeling that the institution of All India Services needs reconsideration.

Reason (R): Members of the. All India Services foster national integration, as they are recruited from different parts of the country.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?


(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not ti1e correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true


70. Which of the following are the features of All India Services?

1. They are common to both Central and State Governments.

2. They are common to all offices of the Government of India throughout the country.

3. The concept of All India Service is based on Tenure System.

4. The members of All India Services are representatives 'of the Central Government.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3 correct

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 3

71. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I List II (Organisation) (Function)

A. Ministry of Home Affairs - - - - 1. Management of IAS

B. U.P.S.C. - - - - 2. Recruitment to Class III (Non-Technical) Posts

C. Ministry of Personnel - - - - 3. Cadre controlling of I.P .S.

D. Staff Selection commission - - - -4. Recruitment to Class II posts
- - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - 5. Advising on inter-service promotions

- - - A B C D

(a) 3 5 2 1


(b) 3 5 1 2

(c) 1 3 5 4

(d) 5 2 3 1

72. Which of the following statements are NOT correct?

1. A Member of UPSC holds office for a term of six years or until he attains the age of 65 years

2. A Member of UPSC is eligible for reappointment for the same post for a second term.

3. A Member of UPSC can accept employment under Central State government after retirement.

4. A Member of UPSC can accept employment as a member of state P.S.C. after retirement.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) l and 2

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 1,.2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

73. Which of the following ensure functional autonomy of the UPSC?

1. the Chairman and Members can be removed only on the grounds given in the Constitution.

2. The expenditure of the Commission is a charge on the Consolidated Fund of India.

3. The Members and Chairman are allowed to accept jobs after retirement.

4. The Chairman and Members being civil servants function in a neutral manner.

Select the correct using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

74. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A): For IAS probationers, "sandwich " training method is employed.

Reason (R) : Field training is useful for providing an insight into the actual administrative situation.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

75. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A) : A generalist may be defined as a public servant who does not have a special background and is easily transferable to any department.

Reason (R): A generalist by virtue of his general knowledge is capable of working in any department.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are hue and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

76. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Civil servants are influenced in their work by political executives because they know the latter have support in the Cabinet.

Reason (R) : Civil servants put up only proposals as are likely to be approved by the Ministers.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are hue and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

77. Which of the following are the functions of the Chief Minister?

1. To communicate to the Central Government an the decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State.

2. To instruct District Connectors to carry out and the decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State.

3. To communicate to the Governor an decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State.

4. To communicate to the Governor an decisions of the Council of Ministers regarding proposals for legislation.

Select the correct using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

78. Which one among the following is NOT the function of the State Secretariat?

(a) To assist the Minister in the formulation of policy

(b) To act as a channel of communication between one Government and an other

(c) To prepare drafts of legislation to be introduced in the Assembly

(d) To assist the legislature in its secretarial work

79. Which of the following are the positions enjoined upon the Chief Secretary of a State?

1. Secretary to the Cabinet.

2. Chief Advisor to the Chief Minister.

3. Chief of the Secretaries.

4. Head of the Civil Service.

5. Representative of the State in all legal matters.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5

80. Which of the following statements are true?

1. The territorial jurisdictions of the regional end district offices are coterminous

2. The territorial jurisdictions of regional offices of different departments are not coterminous.

3. The territorial jurisdiction of regional offices of the central and state governments are one and the same.

4. The territorial jurisdictions of the regional and district offices are different.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

81. In which one of the following districts has the 'Files to Field' programme been introduced?

(a) Sirmour (H.P.)

(b) Ahmedabad (Gujarat)

(c) Ahmednagar (Maharashtra)

(d) Sambalpur (Orissa)

82. Which one of the following is NOT a function of Deputy Commissioner/District Collector?

(a) Maintenance of law and order

(b) Survey and Settlement

(c) Trial of cases under IPC

(d) Enforcing provisions of Cr. P.C.

83. Which of the following are provided for in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment?

1. Elections through Chief Election Commissioner.

2. Devolution of functions by State government.

3. Creation of State Finance Commission.

4. Setting up a three-tiered Indian Federation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

84. Which of the following are true regarding the I.RD.P?

1. It is Uni.-dimensional in nature.

2. It adopts a holistic approach.

3. It calls for a high level of coordination.

4. It is mainly a poverty alleviation programme.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1,2 and 3

(b) 1,3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

85. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled asReason (R).

Assertion (A) : Multiplicity of authorities in urban areas has added to the problems of citizens.

Reason (R) : New special purpose agencies have been created for urban functions.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

86. Which of the following cause the creation of slums in large urban centers?

1. Increased economic activity in urban areas

2. Per capita income being higher in metro cities.

3. Increased government regulations for urban development.

4. Out migration from small urban centres.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

87. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : State government are obliged to appoint a State Finance Commission under the Constitution.

Reason (R) : The quantum of money to be paid annually by the state governments to the local bodies is determined by the State Finance Commission.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

88. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : The Directorates of Local Bodies in States . supervise the working of Municipal Corporations.

Reason (R) : The State governments need to exercise control over all the local bodies.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R. is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

89. Which of the following are provided for by the 74th Constitutional Amendment in respect of Municipal Corporations?

1. Seats to be filled by direct elections on the basis of wards.

2. Reservation of seats for SC/ST.

3. Reservation of seats for backward classes.

4. One-third reservation of seats for women.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

90.Gerald Caiden has mentioned that the crucial role as assumed by public administration in contemporary society is

(a) Institutionalization of Socio-economic change

(b) Strengthening of roots of democracy

(c) Demoralizing administration

(d) Strengthening of human relations in administration

91. From the Value-Fad stand point, various approaches to the study of Public Administration may be classified as

(a) empirical and normative approach

(b) philosophical and historical approaches

(c) legal and behavioral approaches

(d) structural and ecological approaches

92. Administration is politics since it must be responsive to the public interest." This statement was made by

(a) L. Urwick

(b) John M. Piffner

(c) Paul H. Appleby

(d) L. Gulick

93. Which of the following statements regarding "New Public Administration " are true?

1. It rejects that public administration which is value-free.

2. It rejects politics-administration dichotomy.

3. It rejects that public administration which is not properly involved in policy.

4. It is more or less bureaucratic and hierarchical.

Which of the above are true? Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

94. In which of the following directions does public administration move at present?

1. Multi-foci in study.

2. Mini-paradigms.

3. New Public Administration.

4. Locus and focus approach.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 4 only

95. Consider the following statements about the post-World War" writing in Public Administration?

1. These seek to undertake cross-cultural studies.

2. These seek to evolve a true science of administration based on interdisciplinary approach.

3. These seek to develop appropriate methodology.

4. These seek to analyze all types of social phenomena.

Which of the above are true? Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

96. In the evolution of Public Administration there has been a shift in emphasis during successive periods. In this context which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. 1887-1926............. Crisis of Identity

2. 1910-1920............. Scientific Management

3. 1920-1947.............. Human Relations

4. 1948-1966.............. Behaviorism

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

97. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

(a) Public Administration ---Collective activity organisation and management of men and material

(b) Development Administration ---Change and Administrative Responsiveness, Rationality, Management-Worker relations .

(c) Comparative Public Administration--- From ideograph to nomothetic

(d) New Public Administration--- Relevance, values, social equity, change

98. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : The principal objective of scientific management is to secure maximum prosperity for the employer, coupled with maximum prosperity for employees.

Reason (R) : The philosophy of Scientific Management is that there is no inherent conflict in the interests of the employer , workers and consumers.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

99. According to Taylor, Mental Revolution is

(a) substitution of war by peace and cooperation instead of strife

(b) co-operation instead of strife and efficiency device

(c) efficiency device and piece-rate system

(d) substitution of war by peace and piece-rate system 100.

Which one of the following statements is incorrect respect of Taylor?

(a) His view of man was too mechanistic

(b) He upheld the carrot and stick approach

(c) He was preoccupied with efficiency

(d) He stood for creative relationship with work

101. Which of the following are categories of persons', categorized in an organisation by Max Weber? Those who

1.are accustomed to obey commands.

2. are personally interested in continuing domination.

3. evince interest in promoting change.

4. keep them in readiness to perform changing functions.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

102. Give the below are two statements one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A) : The developing countries bureaucracy plays a dominant role.

Reason (R) : Weber brought out the merits of bureaucratic system. .

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

103. The 'gangplank' idea is found in the works of

(a) Fayol

(b) Follett

(c) Barnard

(d) Simon

104. The classical theory of organisation is known as mechanistic theory because

(a) it does not explain the dynamics of organizational behavior

(b) it establishes a formally declared pattern of relationship

(c) it underestimates human factors and oversimplifies motivation

(d) it treats organization as a closed system

105. Mayo made out a case for skills that are:

(a) human and interactive

(b) social and adaptive

(c) scientific and normative

(d) technical and empirical

106. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion
(A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A) : Mayo's recommendations are immensely useful not only in the industrial sector but also in 'the administrative system of a state.

Reason (R) : Human beings in all kinds of Organization have some common social needs, feelings, attitudes and desires.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

107. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I (Approaches) List II (Defining Features)

A. Behavioral - - - - 1. Descriptive

B. Systems- - - - 2. Evolutionary

C. Historic- - - - 3. Interact ional

D. Institutional- - - - 4. Scientific

- - - A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1

(b) 4 3 1 2

(c) 3 4 2 1

(c) 3 4 1 2

108. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I List II

A. Distinction between- - - - 1. Herbert A. Simon obedience and acceptance

B. Distinction between ‘economic- - - - 2. Chester Barnard man’ and ‘administrative man’

C. Distinction between- - - - 3. F. W. Taylor ‘charismatic’ ‘traditional’ and ‘legal rational authority’

D. Distinction between- - - - 4. Max Weber ‘principles’ and ‘mechanics of management’

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 5. H. Fayol

- - - A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3

(b) 1 3 5 2

(c) 2 3 4 1

(d) 1 3 2 5

109. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I List II

A. Top-down Theory - - - -1. A H. Maslow

B. Bottom-up Theory- - - -2. F. W. Taylor

C. Self actualization Theory- - - - 3. Norbert Wiener

D. Cybernetic Theory - - - -4. C. Barnard

- - - A B C D

(a) 4 2 3 1

(b) 2 4 1 3

(c) 4 2 1 3

(d) 2 4 3 1

110. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : In systems approach, the process and the course of action is adapted to suit the requirements of the situation.

Reason (R) : The organization has a social purpose' and is a part of the prevailing environment.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

111. Which of the following are implied by Hierarchy?

1. Higher levels cannot take disciplinary action against subordinates.

2. Higher levels have the freedom to carry out the operations.

3. Upper levels set the goals to be pursued.

4. Lower levels take action to pursue the goals.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

112. The scalar principle refers to as

(a) classification of civil servants according to their scales of pay

(b) grading of duties according to the degree of authority

(c) organizing the relations between members of 'line' and 'staff agencies

(d) governing the allocation of persons, to the different levels in the hierarchy

113. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other 1abeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Unity of command means that the entire organization has only one boss and one plan of action to promote efficiency and effectiveness.

Reason (R) : The concept of unity of command is proposed as substitute to the "Functional foremanship".

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

114. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A) : Span of control depends on personal qualities, skills and experience.

Reason (R) : Empirical studies have found that the span of control will be small if organizational units are located at different places.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true. but R- is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

115. Which one of the following is NOT a proposition in Theory X ?

(a) Man wishes to avoid responsibility

(b) Man has an inherent liking for work

(c) Man must be coerced for working

(d) Man must be threatened with punishment

116. Who among the following do NOT up hold the acceptance theory of authority ?

1. Taylor

2. Fayol

3. Barnard

4. Simon

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) l and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) l and 4

117. Given below are .two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Coordination can be achieved by establishing direct Personal contact with the people concerned.

Reason (R) : Inter-personal communication facilitates quick resolution of differences.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of. the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true .and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

118. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Delegation is not a process of abdication.

Reason (R) : The delegate does not shirk his responsibility.

In the context of the above two statements, Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .

(b) Both A and R are true .but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

119. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Supervision involves inspecting the activities of the subordinates so that they work towards the goal of the organization.

Reason (R) : Individuals have a tendency to work for the achievement of their own ends.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

120. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A) : Division between one and Staff cannot be watertight.

Reason (R) : Authority is more a matter of influence rather than of command.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION 1999 (Prelims)

1. Which of the following are major sources of revenue of urban local bodies ?

1. Property tax

2. Octroi

3. Sales tax

4. Tax on vehicles

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

2. Match List I with List II and-select the correct answerList I List II

A. Concept of circular - - - 1. Blake and MoutonHuman behaviour

B. Managerial - - - 2. D. McGregor

C. Organizational Morale - - - 3. MY Follet

D. Hierarchy of needs - - - 4. A. Maslow

- - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - 5. C. Barnard

- - - A B C D

(a) 1 3 2 4

(b) 2 4 5 1

(c) 3 1 5 4

(d) 2 3 1 4

3. Which one of the following is NOT a role of civil servants in developing societies ?

(a) To actively advise the political executives

(b) To increasingly redress people grievances

(c) To participate in formulation of public policies

(d) To restrain elected representative from usurping roles which are not theirs

4. Which of the following are the purposes of position classification ?

1. To delineate authority

2. To establish chain of command

3. To provide leadership

4. To ensure equal status to all

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

5. Which one of the following agencies is responsible for both recruitment and training of civil servants for the administrative class ?

(a) Woodrow Wilson School of Public and International Affairs, U.S.A.

(b) Ecole National d' Administration, France

(c) Civil Service College, U.K.

(d) Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration, India

6. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by the

(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(b) Prime Minister of India

(c) President of India

(d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

7. The principle of anonymity flows directly from the doctrine of

(a) legal responsibility

(b) collective responsibility

(c) ministerial responsibility

(d) professional responsibility

8. Which of the following are implied in the anonymity of civil servants ?

1. They cannot ask a member to speak up on their behalf in Parliament

2. They cannot express their views to the Press

3. Their decisions have to be countersigned by the Ministers concerned

4. They keep away from Committees of Enquiry

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

9. In which of the following does Position Classification facilitate personnel Administration ?

1. Recruitment

2. Promotion

3. Training

4. Separation

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

10. Match List I with List II and select the correct answerList I (Services) List II (Place of Training establishment)

A. Indian Foreign Service - - - - 1. Vadodra (Baroda)

B. Indian Police Service- - - - 2. New Delhi

C. Railway Service - - - - -3. Hyderabad

D. Income Tax Service - - - - -4. Nagpur

- - - - -- - - - - - - - - - 5. Mount Abu

- - - A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 3 5 1 4

(d) 3 5 4 1

11. Which one of the following DOES NOT form a part of the budget ?

(a) Review of public finance of the previous year

(b) Estimates of receipts and expenditure of the current year

(c) The actual receipts and expenditure of the previous three years

(d) Proposals for meeting the requirements of the following requirements

12. The demands for Supplementary Grants must be presented to and passed by the House

(a) before the end of the respective financial year

(b) before the budget of the following year is passed

(c) after the withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund

(d) after the submission of report of C.A.G.

13. While discussing a budget, the Legislature CANNOT

(a) give assent to the demand

(b) reduce the demand

(c) refuse the demand

(d) increase the demand

14. The Speaker is the ex-officio Chairman of the

(a) Rules Committee

(b) Committee on privileges

(c) Committee on public undertakings

(d) Committee on government assurances

15. Which one of the following is NOT related to Adjournment Motion ?

(a) The matter is framed in general terms

(b) The matter is urgent

(c) The matter is of general public interest

(d) The matter does not raise a question of privilege

16. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of the Ombudsman institution ?

(a) Being independent of the Executive and Legislature

(b) The authority to criticise all governmental agencies

(c) The practices being similar in all the countries

(d) Being recommendatory in nature

17. Which of the following statements are correct ?To exercise effective control over administration, the citizen is required to have

1. high level of education

2. high degree of political consciousness

3. the opportunity to participate

4. some knowledge of the administrative system

(a). 1, 2 and 3

(b). 1, 2 and 4

(c). 1, 3 and 4

(d). 2,3 and 4

18. Which one of the following is NOT applicable regarding the purpose of Cut Motion ?

(a) Raising questions of urgent public importance

(b) Drawing attention to any lapse on part of administration

(c) Drawing attention to specific problems

(d) Concentration discussion on some concrete points

19. Which one of the following is NOT a measure of control exercised by the Legislature over Administration ?

(a) Asking questions

(b) Committee system

(c) Review of decision

(d) No confidence motion

20. Which one of the writs is issued by an appropriate judicial authority body to free a person who has been illegally detained ?

(a) Quo-warranto

(b) Mandamus

(c) Certiorari

(d) Habeas Corpus

21. Which one of the following is true of Appropriation Act?

(a) It is the demand for grants approved by the Parliament

(b) It applies to approval of the budget of the Parliament

(c) Authorization by the Parliament for Withdrawal of money from the consolidated fund

(d) Authorization by the Parliament for withdrawal of money from the contingency fund

22. In the U.S.A., the Independent Regulatory Commission types of organisations as widely used primarily to

(a) escape the pervasive influence of party politics in administration

(b) eradicate corruption in administration

(c) provide better services to the people

(d) off-load the burden of the government departments

23. Which of the following statements are correct ?Members of the British Civil Service are

1. selected on the basis of general mental ability

2. recruited at an early age

3. non-interchangeable between public and private sectors

4. directly responsible to the Parliament

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

24. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The President of France has the power to dissolve the Parliament

(b) Before dissolving the Parliament, the President of France is required to consult the Presidents of the two chambers of Parliament and Prime Minister

(c) While dissolving Parliament, President of France is required to follow the advice of Prime Minister & Presidents of two chambers

(d) The President of France cannot dissolve the Parliament more than once in twelve months

25. The administrative system of France is called 'classic' because

(a) France adopted different administrative orientations

(b) French bureaucracy conforms most closely to the Weber Ian model

(c) Administrative change in France has been abrupt, drastic and frequent

(d) France has had remarkable administrative and bureaucratic continuity

26. Which one of the following is NOT correct regarding the structural features of Soviet bureaucracy ?

(a) Hierarchical structure

(b) Division of labour

(c) Lack of political commitment

(d) Use of regulations

27. Lenin did NOT develop which one of the following as the basic principle of administration ?

(a) Democratic centralism

(b) Democratic decentralization

(c) Objectivity and concreteness

(d) Effectiveness

28. Which one of the following does NOT represent a distinctive feature of the American Presidential Cabinet ?

(a) Political homogeneity

(b) Collective responsibility

(c) Primacy of the President

(d) Lack of agenda

29. Which one of the following is NOT true of Independent Regulatory Commissions of America?

(a) Headless institutions

(b) Fourth organ of the government

(c) Islands of autonomy

(d) Regulatory institutions

30. Which one of the following is NOT true of British administration ?

(a) It is a product of evolution

(b) It is run by a politically committed bureaucracy

(c) It is unitary in character

(d) It is based on the common law of the land

31. Which one of the following was the main feature of Govt. of India Act 1919 ?

(a) Dyarchy in Centre

(b) Provincial Autonomy

(c) Dyarchy in Provinces

(d) Communal Representation

32. The Tenure System' in the Central Services was started by

(a) Lord Macaulay

(b) Lord Curzon

(c) Lord Ripon

(d) Sardar Patel

33. Administrative Tribunals in India CANNOT undermine the rule of law because they

(a) dispense quick and cheap justice

(b) are manned by senior bureaucrats

(c) devise their own flexible procedures

(d) are regulated by Acts of Parliament

34. The quotation, "The new Indian Constitution establishes, indeed, a system of government which is at the most quasifederal almost revolutionary in character, a unitary State with subsidiary federal features, rather than the federal state with unitary features" is attributed to

(a) 1. Jennings

(b) D.D. Basu

(c) K.C. Wheare

(d) H. J. Laski

35. The creation of the office of the Lok Pal was first recommended by the

(a) National Police Commission

(b) States Reorganization Commission

(c) Administrative Reforms Commission

(d) Inter-State Council

36. Which one of the following is correct in terms of the Constitution of India ?

(a) The Prime Minister decides the allocation of portfolios among the ministers

(b) When the Prime Minister decides resigns, the Council of Ministers gets dissolved

(c) All the principal policy announcements of the government are made by the Prime Minister

(d) It shall be the duty of Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the union

37. Match List I with List II and select the correct answerList I List II

A. Central Secretariat - - - -1. Principles governing grants-in-aid

B. Cabinet Secretariat - - - - 2. Formulation of policies

C. Planning - - - - 3. Coordination of activities of various ministriesCommission

D. Finance Commission - - - - 4. Allocation of resources

- - A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 2 3 4 1

(d) 3 2 4 1

38. Which of the following functions are NOT performed by the Central Secretariat?

1. Direction, supervision and control

2. Perspective planning

3. Overseeing governmental decisions

4. Secretarial assistance to the Parliament

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

39. Which of the following are the difficulties in lateral communication ?

1. Lack of cooperative relationship among several officials

2. Organisation of specialist services in the establishment

3. Rivalry among organisation units

4. Superior's reluctance to listen to the subordinates

5. Physical separation of different units.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5

40. When the delegation goes by a climate of understanding between the superior and the subordinate, it is known as

(a) informal delegation

(b) specific delegation

(c) formal delegation

(d) general delegation

41. The NDC was set up as per

(a) the Government of India Act, 1935

(b) the recommendations of the Finance Commission

(c) the provisions of the Indian Constitution

(d) the recommendations of the Planning Commission

42. Which of the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is/are true ? The Report of Comptroller and Auditor General of India

1. can be considered by the joint session of both Houses of Parliament

2. includes examination of income and expenditure of all public sector undertakings

3. is placed before the Lok Sabha with the comments of the Estimates Committee

4. constitutes the basis for scrutiny by the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 4 alone

43. Which of the following statements about Public Enterprises are true ?

1. Public corporation form provides for greater autonomy in management

2. Departmental undertaking is subject to extensive legislative and executive control

3. Government company gives greater freedom to the creator for direction and control

4. State Roadways Transport Corporations are created under State Acts

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

44. Match List I with List II and select the correct answerList I (Name of Organisation) List II (Form of organisation)

A. Indian Railways - - - -1. Public Corporation

B. Central Warehousing - - - - 2. Government companyCorporation

C. State Trading Corporation - - - - 3. Board

D. Central Water and Power Commission

- - -A B C D

(a) 1 3 2 -

(b) 1 3 - 2

(c) 3 1 - 2

(d) 3 1 2 -

45. The role of the Finance Commission in Central State fiscal relations has been undermined by the

(a) State Governments

(b) Zonal Councils

(c) Planning Commission

(d) Central government

46. The initial idea of recruitment on merit principle can be traced to the

(a) Lee Commission

(b) Macaulay Committee

(c) Islington Commission

(d) Maxwell Committee

47. Which of the following are the functions of the Union Public Service Commission ?

1. To conduct examinations for recruitment to the services of the Union

2. To advise on matters referred to them by the President or the Governor

3. To advise on all disciplinary matters affecting a government servant

4. To advise on the principles to be followed in respect of promotions and transfers

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3.

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

48. The L.B.S. National Academy of Administration provides

(a) in-service and post-selection training to a select group of Government officers

(b) structured post-selection training to a select group of Govt. officers

(c) structured training to all Govt. officers

(d) pre-entry training to all Govt. officers

49. When the problem of corruption in public services assumed serious dimensions, the Government of India appointed a high power committee under the chairmanship of

(a) Ananthaswamy Ayyangar

(b) P V Subbaiah

(c) K. Santhanam

(d) K. Hanumanthya

50. Which of the following statements are correct ?In democracy, a civil servant must be committed to the1. goal of the Constitution 2. common good3. ruling party's ideology4. execution of public policy

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and

45 Which of the following statements are correct ?In a Parliamentary democracy, bureaucracy can become enormously powerful because of

1. limitations of Parliamentary controls

2. principle of ministerial responsibility

3. judicial activism

4. lack of popular initiative

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

52. Consider the following statementsThe Governor of the State in India has the power to appoint1. Judges of the High Court2. Members of the State Public Service Commission3. Members of the State Finance Commission4. the Accountant General ,Which of the statements are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

53. Consider the following statementsChief Secretary of a State Government is1. Principal adviser to the Chief Minister. 2. Secretary to the Cabinet.3. Secretary to the Government. 4. Head of Civil service.Which of these statements are correct ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

54. In a state directorate, the main responsibility of the directorate is related to

(a) policy making

(b) policy implementation

(c) policy evaluation

(d) policy analysis

55. In matters relating to revenue administration, the District Collector reports to the

(a) Chief Secretary

(b) Secretary (Finance Department)

(c) Divisional Commissioner

(d) Secretary (Revenue Department)

56. The "Lakhina (Ahmednagar) Experiment" is associated with

(a) District Administration

(b) Panchayati Raj Administration

(c) Rural Development Administration

(d) Tribal Development Administration

57. Match List I with List II and select the correct answerList I List II

A.73rd Constitutional - - - -1. Democratic DecentralizationAmendment

B. 74th Constitutional - - - -2. State Finance CommissionAmendment

C. Balwantrai Mehta - - - - 3. Municipal CouncilsCommittee

D. L.M. Singhvi - - - - 4. Constitutional status to Panchayati RajCommittee

- - -A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 3 2 4 1

58. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992 provides for which of the following ?

1. Municipal Committees

2. Ward Committees

3. Committee for District Planning

4. Committee for Metropolitan PlanningSelect the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

59. Which of the following statements are correct ? Mayor-in-Council form of urban local governance

1. ensures executive-deliberative dichotomy

2. upholds the principle of collective responsibility

3. provides a plural political executive

4. dispenses with the party system

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

60. Which of the following statements are correct ? Village Panchayats are responsible for

1. agricultural production

2. rural industrial development

3. maternity and child welfare

4. higher vocational education

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

DIRECTIONS : The following 26 items consist of two statements, one labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as `Reason R'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether, the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes givenbelow and mark your answer sheet accordingly

(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(b) A is false but R is true

61. Assertion (A) : In welfare states, Public Administration touches almost all aspects of a citizen's life.

Reason (R) : The scope and importance of Public Administration increases with increasing societal complexity, specialisation and differentiation.

62. Assertion (A) : The study of public administration lacks cross-cultural concepts and principles for being able to be recognized as a science.

Reason (R) : Administrative culture cannot transcend national frontiers and national experiences.

63. Assertion (A) : A more rational and integrated approach to managerial problems is needed for increasing productivity.

Reason (R) : It was mainly to find ways to raise industrial output that Taylor came up with his ideas on `Scientific Management".

64. Assertion (A) : The Human Relations theory focuses on management as a web of interpersonal relationships.

Reason (R) : Management and administration involve group effort and collective endeavors of people.

65. Assertion (A) : The Administrative Science should study facts about human behaviour without getting involved in the question of values.

Reason (R) : Before science can develop principles, it must possess concepts.

66. Assertion (A) : Behavioural Approach has limited relevance in dealing with all types of problems in administration.

Reason (R) : The complexity and variety of human nature, motivation and behaviour preclude attainment of precision.

67. Assertion (A) : According to the systems approach, an organisation is a social system and has to be studied in its totality.

Reason (R) : A system is a comprehensive and complex whole of a set of interconnected and interdependent parts.

68. Assertion (A) : Supervision involves overseeing, inspecting and directing the activities of the subordinates so that the goals of the organisation are accomplished properly.

Reason (R) : Individuals have a tendency to pay greater attention to the fulfillment of their personal goals.

69. Assertion (A) : Staff-line relations frequently produce tensions and conflicts.

Reason (R) : The line tends to be conservative about changes, yet the mission of staff is precisely that of investigating the need for change.

70. Assertion (A) : Without delegating authority, where necessary, it would be impossible for the head to carry on the entire tasks of the organization himself.

Reason (R) : The extent of delegation of authority, is not related to the size and diversity of work in an organization.

71. Assertion (A) : Successful organisation requires not only command and executive direction but also sound leadership.

Reason (R) : Leadership tends to be expressed in terms of power to command or ability to dominate.

72. Assertion (A) : Downward as well as upward messages received by middle level officials are often distorted before they are passed on.

Reason (R) : Whenever such an official receives a message which he considers incoherent, illogical or incomplete, he tries to "make sense" out of it.

73. Assertion (A) : People are induced to do their work in I the best possible manner if they are properly motivated.

Reason (R) : Fear of punishment acts as a motivator but is of a negative kind.

74. Assertion (A) : Assumptions about the nature of men enable executives to determine motivational practices.

Reason (R) : Adoption of theory 'Y' practices kills the initiative of employees.

75. Assertion (A) : Position classification in Civil Services of developing countries is a legacy of the colonial past.

Reason (R) : Rank classification in Civil Services can work only in a developed technological society.

76. Assertion (A) : The cornerstone of a public personnel system is built upon a sound recruitment policy.

Reason (R) : Open competitive examinations are answer to twin demands of democracy and good administration.

77. Assertion (A) : Government provides for various types of training for its employees.

Reason (R) : Training enhances the efficiency of employees by improving their knowledge and skills.

78. Assertion (A) : Lok Ayuktas have been appointed in all the States of India.

Reason (R) : An independent institution is required to redress grievances of people against the actions of civil servants.

79. Assertion (A) : The salary and conditions of service of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India cannot be varied to his/her disadvantage after he/she is appointed.

Reason (R) : The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a Constitutional office.

80. Assertion (A) : Estimates of income and expenditure should be on cash basis.

Reason (R) : All money that Government deals with during the current financial year should be included in estimates.

81. Assertion (A) : The American Civil Service is more specialised than British Civil Service.

Reason (R) : In the selection of civil servants, the Britishers prefer career staffing while Americans prefer programme staffing.

82. Assertion (A) : Efficiency rating is undertaken regularly in personnel management. in the U.S.A.

Reason (R) : In the U.S.A., there is greater stress on professionalization.

83. Assertion (A) : The Secretariat maybe said to be the brain-centre of the administrative body, directing and overseeing all administrative activity.

Reason (R) : The Secretariat provides the Minister with materials and expert advice for the formulation of policies and watches over their application once they have been formulated.

84. Assertion (A) : The strength of the State Council of Ministers has not been specified in the Constitution of India.

Reason (R) : A number of pressures operate in the determination of the strength of tire Ministry.

85. Assertion (A) : In a democracy, the functioning of bureaucracy is conditioned by the operation of party system.

Reason (R) : Where the party system is unable to produce a stable government, bureaucracy acquires a special position.

86. Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India now provides a mechanism for regular flow of funds to Panchayati Raj institutions.

Reason (R) : The Panchayati Raj institutions have been greatly handicapped in the performance of their assigned duties by paucity of funds.

87. The term "Public" in Public Administration stands for

(a) the citizens in a democracy

(b) the formally constituted government

(c) any administration having its impact on everybody

(d) the defining characteristic of a kind of administration

88. The scope of conventional public administration has been under attack from Public Choice Theorists, as they

(a) reject the idea of welfare state and services

(b) propose restrictions on bureaucratic functioning

(c) consider the market as a more efficient provider of goods and services

(d) view the politician as being in league with the bureaucrat

89. Which of the following reasons prompted Woodrow Wilson to advocate a "science of administration'?

1. The desire to straighten the paths of government.

2. The idea of making government business less un-businesslike.

3. The intention to strengthen and purify government organisation.

4. The need to raise a band of dutiful civil servants.

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

90. The New Public Administration is a quest for

(a) ethical values and scientific analysis

(b) scientific, analysis and relevance

(c) relevance and ethical values

(d) excellence

91. Which of the following did Herbert Simon emphasize ?

1. Valule-fact dichotomy

2. Means-ends relationship

3. Composite decision-making

4. Illusion of final authority

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

92. The significance of Public Administration as a discipline lies in

(a) improving government functioning

(b) developing scientific knowledge about public administration

(c) organising training programmes for the civil servants

(d) creating informal and intelligent citizenship

93. In Public Administration, which of the following type of 'efficiency' have been advocated by Peter Self ?

1. Administrative efficiency

2. Policy efficiency

3. Service efficiency

4. Profit making efficiency

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

94. Today, public-private distinction needs to be understood in terms of

(a) contradictory models of governance

(b) application of the unique nature of public administration

(c) complementary of the two sectors in respect of social management

(d) the distinctive profit-driven character of private management

95. Consider the following statements : Under the impact of neo-classical economic theory, "privatization" is now being suggested as new public philosophy which is oriented towards

1. down-sizing government.

2. contracting out to private agencies.

3. dis-investment in public enterprises.

4. according supremacy to the private sector.

Which of these statements are correct ?

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 496.

Which of the following were part of recommendations of Minnibrook Conference on New Public Administration (1968)?

1. Normative and empirical approaches should be strengthened.

2. Public Administration should have independent roots.

3. Equity' should be the concern of the administrators.

4. American Public Administration should come out of its crisis.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

97. Match List I with List II and select the correct answerList I List II(Stages of evolution (Writers associated with the stages of evolution)of Public Administration)

A. Political administration separation - - - -1. Woodrow Wilson

B. Human relations - - - - 2. Elton Mayo

C. Science of Management - - - - 3. Harold Lasswell

D. Policy Science - - - - 4. W E Willoughby

- - -A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 1 4 3

(c) 2 1 3 4

(d) 1 2 4 3

98. Who among the following writers have NOT contributed to the doctrine of Politics-administration dichotomy ?

1. Max Weber

2. Frank Goodnow

3. Fred Riggs

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1 and 3

99. Match List I with List II and select the correct answerList I List II

A. Administrative Behaviours - - - - 1. Gulick and Urwick

B. Functions of the Executive - - - - 2. Dwight Waldo

C. Public Administration in a - - - - 3. Herbert SimonTime of Turbulence

D. Papers on Science of Public - - - - 4. Chester BarnardAdministration

- - - A B C D

(a) 3 4 2 1

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 3 4 1 2

(d) 4 3 1 2100.

Taylor's concept of mental revolutions stands for

(a) harmony and cooperation

(b) cooperation, harmony and restricted output

(c) restricted output and cooperation

(d) economy, cooperation and restricted output

101. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched ?

(a) Guardian bureaucracy Class base

(b) Caste bureaucracy Aristocratic type

(c) Patronage bureaucracy Spoils system

(d) Merit bureaucracy Career open to talent

102. Match List I with List II and select the correct answerList I List II

A. Reconstruction of administrative - - - - 1. Normative Approachrealities through an in depth analysis of an event

B. Study of Public Administration- - - - 2. Empirical Approachas is should be

C. Study of principles underlying - - - -3. Philosophical Approachadministrative activities

D. Analysis of informal networks - -- 4. Case Method Approachand group relationships in the field

- - - A B C D

(a) 4 1 3 2

(b) 3 1 4 2

(c) 4 2 3 1

(d) 3 2 4 1

103. Which of the following are the feature's of Classical Theory ?

1. Specialisation

2. Efficiency

3. Hierarchy

4. Leadership

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

104. Which of the following statements regarding Behavioural approach are correct ?

1. It is more deductive than inductive.

2. It is less macro and more micro.

3. !t is inter-disciplinary in nature.

4. It is more descriptive and less empirical.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

105. Which one of the following is attributed to Barnard ?

(a) Science of muddling through

(b) Bounded rationality

(c) Zone of indifference

(d) Management by integration

106. The systems approach to administrative analysis has enriched our understanding of administrative processes by focusing mainly on

(a) interpersonal relations in an organisation and human behaviour

(b) management's crucial role in efficient coordination

(c) open nature of organisation and its relationship with the environment

(d) systematic analysis of organisational structure and functioning

107. Which of the following statements are INCORRECT ?

1. Organisations are structured in a hierarchical manner.

2. In a hierarchy all positions are equal.

3. A hierarchical structure is always of the pyramid shape.

4. When the organisation grows bottom shrinks.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

108. Unity of command does NOT mean

(a) All the units of an organisation should be integrated under the authority of one head

(b) The number of subordinates who can be effectively supervised by an officer

(c) There should be one person and not a body of persons at the apex of an organisation.

(d) An individual employer should not be subject to the orders of more than immediate supervisors

109. The characteristic feature of the post-war period (19481970) in the evolution of the study of Public Administration has been described as an era, of

(a) re-discovery of principles

(b) return to mother science

(c) crisis of identity

(d) de-emphasis of administration

110. Authority should be commensurate with

(a) degree of coordination

(b) position in the hierarchy

(c) degree of responsibility

(d) degree of supervision

111. Which one of the following if NOT indicative of coordination ?

(a) Collective action of one person with others

(b) Cooperation and team-work among the employees

(c) Inter-relating various parts of the work

(d) Integration of several parts into an orderly whole

112. In which of the following situations does the need for coordination arise ?

1. Overlap of efforts

2. Duplication of efforts

3. Neglect of personal interests

4. Conflicts in interests

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

113. Match List I with List II and select the correct answerList I List II

A. Line agency - - - -1. Authority of knowledge

B. Staff agency - - - -2. Authority of action

C. Auxiliary agency - - - -3. Housekeeping

D. Development agency - - - - 4. Planning and regulation

- - - A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 1 3 4

(c) 2 1 4 3

(d) 1 2 4 3

114. Which of the following statements about decisions making are true ?

1. It is a plural activity.

2. It is largely based on total rationality.

3. Personal values influence its process.

4. It allows greater role to the administrative person.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

115. Who among the following said that leadership and authority are plural because of involvement of many people ?

(a) Ordway Tead

(b) Chester Bernard

(c) Mary Parker Follett

(d) M. E. Dimock

116. Mc Gregor's Theory Y provides for which of the following?

1. Shared responsibility.

2. Imposed direction and control.

3. Self direction and self control.

(a) 2 alone (

b) 1 and 2

(c) 3 alone

(d) l and 3

117. Which one of the following is NOT one of the types of leadership according to the concept of Max Weber ?

(a) Charismatic

(b) Traditional

(c) Bureaucratic

(d) Rational-Legal

118. Match List I with List II and select the correct answerList I (Leadership) List II (Theory)

A. Personal qualities which a leader has - - - -1. Trait Theory

B. Situation in which a leader works - - - -2. Systems Theory

C. Participation of subordinates - - - -3. Theory 'Y'in goal setting

D. Role of leader, situation, - - - -4. Situationalfollowers and environment Theory

- - - A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 1 3 4 2

(c) 3 4 1 2

(d) 1 4 3 2

119. Herbert Simon's model of decision making is known as

(a) disjointed incrementalism

(b) behaviour alternative

(c) mixed scanning

(d) policy science

120. Who among the following identified channels of communication with channels of authority ?

(a) Herbert Simon

(b) Chester Bernard

(c) J. D. Millet

(d) Ordway Tead